Merriam-Webster's Collegiate Dictionary defines the term "free will" as:
1. voluntary choice or decision 〈I do this of my own free will〉
2. freedom of humans to make choices that are not determined by prior causes or by divine intervention (11th edition).
Biblically only the first of these definitions is used. The term "free will offering" is used many times in the Old Testament. These offerings are not considered "free will" because they were outside of God's decree or work in their hearts. They were "free will" because they were voluntary. These offerings were only obligatory when the person had promised them.
So what?
All this is not only to tell you what "free will" is biblically but also to explain what it isn't. When many people hear of the concept of predestination or, more specifically, unconditional election they immediately respond by saying it can't be true because of free will. This concept does not come from the Bible. It is a human rationalization of the biblical teaching of our responsibility.
God's sovereignty over all things doesn't negate this responsibility. Everything we do is a willing thing for which we are responsible. Everything we do is in God's perfect plan and, in the case of the lost, in slavery to sin and Satan. But we must accept that we still make choices.
For more on this subject I want to point you to a couple of blog posts by Jason Lapp and Tim Challies. I encourage you to research this topic and rest in God's sovereignty without losing passion for holy living and passionate evangelism.
Grace and Peace,
Stephen
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
5 comments:
Hey Stephen,
1) Are "free will" and a choice to obey or disobey synonymous?
2) What exactly does God's sovereignty mean? How does His sovereignty interact with the choices you mention?
Thanks in advance. Blessings!
Crowm,
Thanks for reading the post and for your question.
(1) According to Webster's Dictionary the two terms are synonymous. Biblically I think that there is a close relation between the two. It is the second definition Webster's gives that I see a lot of people applying to the Bible without biblical warrant.
(2) The definition of sovereignty under which I operate is that God has the right and ability to do whatever He pleases in all creation. A few examples of this concept are found in Psalm 115:3, Psalm 135:6, and Proverbs 21:1.
Finally, how does God's sovereignty relate to the choices of people? Well that is a pretty complicated issue but I do believe it is addressed in Scripture.
I think the best text to show how God's sovereignty and our will relates is Philippians 2:12-13
"Therefore, my beloved, as you have always obeyed, so now, not only as in my presence but much more in my absence, work out your own salvation with fear and trembling, for it is God who works in you, both to will and to work for his good pleasure."
Of course that is speaking to believers. This issue gets even more complicated when it comes to sinners. The story of Joseph contains a lot of sin but in the end Joseph told his brothers, "As for you, you meant evil against me, but God meant it for good... Psalm 105 speaks on the story in a very similar way.
This is complicated because this and other texts speak of God's sovereignty over all things (including sin) and yet Scripture rejects God's direct involvement in sin (James 1:13-14). Scripture also talks about God's hatred of sin.
So my conclusion is that God decrees sin but is not directly involved in causing a person to sin.
I hope this helps clear up my position.
Grace and Peace,
Stephen
"God decrees sin, but is not directly involved in causing a person to sin."
My Christian brother, I love you, but that does not make any sense at all. I don't know everything, but I am willing to admit when I don't know something. If you could better explain this seemingly contradictory phenomena, that would be very helpful, and who knows, I might just turn Calvinist. But as it stands, I believe this is a point where your argument falls apart. I don't mean to sound like a jerk and I'm not trying to pick a fight, but I believe that this point either need to be explained in a way that makes sense (if it can be), or you should accept it by faith, and admit that you are doing so.
In Christ,
~Stephen
Stephen,
Check back in on each Tuesday and Wednesday of the next two weeks. I will be doing a response to Arminian Today's post, "Did God Cause the Fall of Man?"
http://arminiantoday.blogspot.com/2007/07/did-god-cause-fall-of-man.html
Thank you for your kindness.
Grace and Peace,
Stephen
Stephen,
Let me respond quickly to something you said that didn't register with me right away. "...you should accept it by faith, and admit that you are doing so."
It is troubling for me to see a Christian with your definition of faith. Honestly (and I really do say this with a loving and concerned tone) the way you said that sounded like an atheistic definition of faith. Perhaps you didn't intend your use of the word faith.
Faith is "the assurance of things hoped for, the conviction of things not seen." (Hebrews 11:1)
Faith is not the belief in something of which you are ignorant. Or the belief in something you can't intellegently explain.
What I do in saying that God predestines something and is not always the responsible agent in carrying it out is putting two biblical truths side by side. Do I know how they relate in every case? No. But I don't accept it by faith because I don't have biblical evidence of the truth. I accept it by faith because I do have evidence in the Bible that supports it. I have faith in everything the Bible teaches.
Grace and Peace,
Stephen
Post a Comment