In 2 Corinthians 5:14-15 Paul says:
…we have concluded this: that one has died for all, therefore all have died; and he died for all, that those who live might no longer live for themselves but for him who for their sake died and was raised.This is a difficult passage to interpret for sure. Unfortunately, many resort to mere proof-texting of this passage to establish the use of the phrase “he died for all.” On the other hand, many Calvinist could be charged with- whether intentional or not- avoiding this text because of the level of difficulty there is in explaining why it doesn’t contradict their view of the atonement.
So, after almost a month of studying chapters 4-6 of 2 Corinthians let me give you my conclusion to the meaning of this passage and how it teaches a definite atonement. But first I will give you an alternative explanation.
William Birch of the Classical Arminianism blog says that the most obvious understanding of 2 Corinthians 5:14-15 is as follows:
“…one [Adam] has died for all [humanity], therefore all have died [see Romans 5:12-13]; and he [Christ] died for all [humanity], that those who live [Christians] might no longer live for themselves but for him who for their sake died and was raised.”
I reject this interpretation mostly on the grounds that it seems very difficult to follow and doesn’t flow well with the thought of the context. So my understanding is as follows:
“…one [Christ]..." There are two reasons I say that the “one” is Christ and not Adam. The first is that Adam hasn’t been brought in to Paul's argument or even mentioned yet in the epistle. Paul has been talking about Christ and so it would be odd for him to introduce Adam without naming him as if it is assumed that he is referring back to Romans 5 or even 1 Corinthians 15:22.
Second, and more convincing for me, is that it says the one has died “for all.” The word “for” implies intention and/or substitution. In Adam’s case all die in the one but he did not die “for all.”
"...has died for all [of us]..." I interpret the all as Christians and not everyone who has or will ever live because of the context (see the "we all" of 5:10). Also, the final effect of the death of Christ will show why this is not for all mankind.
"...therefore all have died [died to sin]..." In this particular case I don’t think the word “died” has to mean the same thing across the board. In other words, I don't the "all" died in the same way that Christ died. Because of the contrast between died and “live for themselves” it seems sustainable that “all died” means that they died to sin. Romans 6:1-14 is a perfect parallel to the cause and effect relationship of Christ's physical death and our death to sin. If it is true that the “one” is Christ and not Adam it most likely follows that the second “died” means death to sin and not natural death. I don’t see a better way of interpreting that sentence and I do think it is much clearer than assuming that Adam is showing up out of nowhere.
"...AND he [Christ] died for all [see above], that those who live [same as “all”] might no longer live for themselves but for him who for their sake died and was raised.”
I emphasize the word "and" because it is the only way it makes sense in my reading. Rather than contrasting two different deaths (as in Romans 5) I see the "and" as signaling two aspects of the one death.
So the point is that everyone for whom Christ died will die to themselves/the world/sin (at conversion) and be raised with Christ to live for him. This lines up with 5:21, "For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God."
This means that the death of Christ has definite effects that will not happen to many. I think if we read this passage plainly (without reading too much into the one word "all") we can see the massive truth of the Christ's love for his people.
Grace and Peace,
Stephen
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